acuity versus error in refraction

Discussion in 'Optometry Archives' started by Guest, Jan 17, 2006.

  1. Guest

    Guest Guest

    To whom it concerns,

    Wake up all nitwits, there is no excact conversion possible from diopters
    into vision acuity
    and vice versa, period.
    There is a relation nothing more nothing less.
    A clip and clear example ace or otis?
    A blind eye with a refractive error zero (0 diopter) or a refractive error
    plus ten (+10 diopters)
    still possess both a vision acuity of zero, cappice?

    --
    Free to Marcus Porcius Cato: ''Ceterum censeo Carthaginem esse delendam"

    In conclusion, I think that the "Otis therapy" should be destroyed

    Jan (normally Dutch spoken)
     
    Guest, Jan 17, 2006
    #1
    1. Advertisements

  2. A pretty good statistical correlation. Valid within limits,
    of course. Go look up the "Dead Horse Equation" on google.

    -- Robert
     
    Robert Redelmeier, Jan 18, 2006
    #2
    1. Advertisements

  3. Guest

    acemanvx Guest

    A blind eye would have LP or NLP or 20/infinate. A +10 depending on
    accomodative amplitude has varable accuracy. Say he can accomodate +5
    of the +10 diopters, the remaining +5 diopters would give him 20/400
    UCVA from distance and worse from near. I heard of one college lady of
    18 who was +6.5 and she could accomodate +4.5 diopters and had a
    manifast refraction of +2 and 20/70 UCVA. She got lasik and is now +2
    and is glasses free for now but will soon need glasses again as her
    accomodative amplitude drops.

    There is a very close correlation between the two. Diopter is a
    measurement of the focal point. A +2 lens or an eye with +2 diopters is
    in focus at half meter and needs a -2 lens to cancel out. Everyone
    knows more diopters results in more defocus so therefore its
    predictable. A -3 myope would see worse than a -2.5 myope if both have
    the same BCVA
     
    acemanvx, Jan 18, 2006
    #3
  4. Guest

    otisbrown Guest

    Dear Ace man,

    Subject: A dumb comparision.

    Jan has been taught the box-camera
    theory.

    Therefore there can be no relationship
    between refractive state and visual
    acuity.

    And of course, what Jan says is
    true, the dead eye can have
    a refractive state of zero, and
    a visual acuity of infinity -- in
    a dead person.

    And of course he is 100 percent
    correct.

    Aceman you are a wacco for not
    recognizing Jans genius.

    Jan feels much better -- now that
    he has put you in your "place".

    But Ace-man, do you feel
    better for Jan's imparted knowledge?

    Remember -- the primate data
    tells the truth about the dynamic
    behavior of the living eye.

    Otis
     
    otisbrown, Jan 18, 2006
    #4
  5. Guest

    Guest Guest

    One simple question Robert, can you tell me what the refraction error should
    be when I say the vision acuity is 0.5 or as you might say 20/40?
    And please tell me myopic or hyperopic (or maybe emmetropic?) or astigmatic.

    To make it simple, layman (aceotisace) in this NG think they simply can
    convert vision acuity in diopters and vice versa, forgetting there is more
    to say when you have to explain for instance a low vision in an emmetropic.
     
    Guest, Jan 18, 2006
    #5
  6. Guest

    Guest Guest

    The above is placed because ace refuses to make clear to whom and on what he
    is responding, a bad habbit of ace.
    Blind is blind ace, even when accomodating.
    Besides, accomodating and having an error in refraction of +10 diopters
    means more error.
    The example of mine (in the above) is myopic, not hypermetropic.

    --
    Free to Marcus Porcius Cato: ''Ceterum censeo Carthaginem esse delendam"

    In conclusion, I think that the "Otis therapy" should be destroyed

    Jan (normally Dutch spoken)
     
    Guest, Jan 18, 2006
    #6
  7. Guest

    Guest Guest

    Indeed, among a lot other interresting subjects on photography by my father
    who was an exellent amateur photographer.
    BTW, an eye and a box-camera are not two off a kind TMHO.
    You are an incorrigible old man Otis, misquoting must be lifetime habbit of
    yours.
    This is what I stated:

    Wake up all nitwits, there is no excact conversion possible from diopters
    into vision acuity
    and vice versa, period.
    There is a relation nothing more nothing less.
    Keep these two in mind Otis.
    Absolutly true Otis!
    Almost, one person to go, gues who.


    --
    Free to Marcus Porcius Cato: ''Ceterum censeo Carthaginem esse delendam"

    In conclusion, I think that the "Otis therapy" should be destroyed

    Jan (normally Dutch spoken)
     
    Guest, Jan 18, 2006
    #7
  8. _If_ the error is purely myopic, it is approximately -0.1 diopter.
    If it is something else, you will have to go fish. Statistics are
    tools for those who know how and when to use 'em.

    -- Robert
     
    Robert Redelmeier, Jan 18, 2006
    #8
  9. Guest

    Guest Guest

    Just the answer I needed, statistics don't tell you what type of ametropia
    exist and what would be the best vision acuity possible.
    BTW, -0.1 diopters ( about 1/8 dioptr) should make the difference from
    20/40 to 20/20 to a myopic with an average BCVA of 20/20?
    I agree with your ''Statistics are tools for those who know how and when to
    use 'em"
     
    Guest, Jan 18, 2006
    #9
  10. Guest

    acemanvx Guest

    20/40 correlates most often to -1 diopters but your BCVA plays a huge
    factor. Have a 20/40 BCVA and you could be plano or -.25 and 20/40.
    Have 20/20 and your typically a -1. Diopters to 20/something values are
    taken based on a 20/20 BCVA. I know this guy whos 20/40, corrected to
    20/15 with -1.5 diopters. -1 diopters gets him to 20/20, but since his
    eyes are capable of better, -1 is too weak for him. I have heard of
    people with -2 to -2.5 diopters having 20/40 UCVA, corrected better
    than 20/15 but its rare!

    A blind person by our standards is 20/200 or worse BCVA. Many (legally)
    blind people here do have some vision, but very poor, nonfunctional. I
    knew this lady in person who was blind but she could see light,
    darkness, shadows and the outline of large objects. She has light
    perception(LP)
     
    acemanvx, Jan 18, 2006
    #10
  11. Guest

    p.clarkii Guest

    "I know this guy whos 20/40, corrected to
    20/15 with -1.5 diopters. -1 diopters gets him to 20/20, but since his
    eyes are capable of better, -1 is too weak for him. I have heard of
    people with"

    and one time, there was this guy at band camp...
     
    p.clarkii, Jan 19, 2006
    #11
  12. Guest

    p.clarkii Guest

    "Remember -- the primate data
    tells the truth about the dynamic
    behavior of the living eye."

    what does the HUMAN data tell about the behavior of the living human
    eye Otis?
    at the very least it tells everyone that otis the engineer is pissing
    in the wind with his plus lens theory.

    just because a theory of how the eye works (the "excess accommodation
    causes myopia" theory) sounds good, and it "feels" like it must be
    right, and it partially explains some of the data, does not mean that
    therefore it must be right! when you test it in humans and it doesn't
    pan out, then its back to the drawing board. not very objective of you
    to hang onto something thats disproven now is it otis? not very
    scientific of you is it otis? but alas i forgot-- otis is not a
    scientist, he's an engineer!

    go build something otis. or go play some shuffleboard.
     
    p.clarkii, Jan 19, 2006
    #12
  13. Graag! Yes, there are many different ways to impair vision,
    and myopia is only one.
    This is what the correlation would imply. _HOWEVER_, it is
    nothing but a correlation with error bands, and most likely
    centered much higher, around -3-5D. I think most practitioners
    would report somewhat more for 20/40, say between -0.5-1.0D
    Thank you. Unfortunately, people frequently misuse
    them with malica a-forethought. "Figures don't lie,
    byt liars figure" [Mark Twain].

    -- Robert
     
    Robert Redelmeier, Jan 19, 2006
    #13
    1. Advertisements

Ask a Question

Want to reply to this thread or ask your own question?

You'll need to choose a username for the site, which only take a couple of moments (here). After that, you can post your question and our members will help you out.