I just had an eye appointment and noticed something strange. The doctor refined my prescription AFTER my eyes were dilated. When we were talking about his suggested changes to my old prescription he admitted that how I normally view things would better match a prescription determined BEFORE dilating my eyes, and therefore he'd prescribe something between the two prescriptions. This seems improper and like bad practice that could end up prescribing lenses that do not match my eyes as they normally are. Am I correct in being highly suspicious about his order of tests and his suggested prescription or am I being paranoid?